System Security Defense Quiz

Question 1: What is the MOST IMPORTANT reason to have detailed documentation of what happens during an incident?
a. To improve the security posture of the organization
b. To know which member of the response team is the most valuable contributor
c. To provide proof that can be taken to court
d. To identify where the attack is coming from

Solution:  To improve the security posture of the organization

Question 2:  The most likely reason humans are considered the weakest link is:
a. Humans are stubborn
b. Humans have emotion
c. Humans talk too much
d. Human can't be trusted

Solution: Humans have emotion

Question 3: The success factor of an attacker could be of the following, EXCEPT
a. They use the victim's red team
b. They patiently studied their target
c. They breach and observe
d. They are persistent

Solution: They use the victim's red team

Question 4: The following could be the cause for failure in detection of threats and incidents, EXCEPT:
a. Unpatched hosts
b. Untrained users
c. Zero-day attack
d. Hiring external consultant as incident responders

Solution: Hiring external consultant as incident responders

Question 5: If an incident has happened, and you need to bring the criminal to justice, which of the following is most important for your response team?
a. The user credential of the witness or victim
b. The availability of the jury
c. The confidentiality of the court's hearing date
d. The integrity of the incident's data

Solution: The integrity of the incident's data

Question 6: The following are good location to place sensors or detectors of intrusion EXCEPT
a. The users
b. The internal network
c. The external network
d. The hosts

Solution: The users

Question 7: Why is it important to perform self assessment before defining the incident response process?
a. Threats could be stopped before it happens
b. Critical asset and resources could be defined
c. Zero-day could be prevented
d. Estimation of the time of attack could be made

Solution: Critical asset and resources could be defined

Question 8: After knowing which assets to protect, a requirement that could assist us to identify breach or incident is:
a. Knowing how much those assets costs
b. Identifying the baseline and normal occurrences of those assets
c. Installing security control that could protect the assets from risks
d. Hiring consultants to assess the assets to get a second opinion

Solution: Identifying the baseline and normal occurrences of those assets 

Question 9: The best practice if we adopt the ASSUME BREACH approach in handling security incident means:
a. Form the purple team to manage the red and blue team
b. We are ready, learn and adapt for security incident
c. We use cloud computing services to distribute the security team
d. We constantly attack and defend our organization's security control

Solution: We are ready, learn and adapt for security incident

Question 10: Which of the following is an example of defense in depth implementation?
a. Defense is embedded deep within the OSI layers and technology
b. Considering security implementation from the users, hosts and systems perspective
c. Protection and defense is so strong that the asset is impenetrable to risk and threats
d. Situation where the attacker can't penetrate and harm the asset because of the layers of security defense

Solution: Considering security implementation from the users, hosts and systems perspective

Buddhism Quiz

Q1: The following statements are correct about Shinto EXCEPT
a. the belief in sacred spirits of nature
b. the indigenous faith of the Japanese people
c. Propaganda and preaching are not common
d. It has a founder and sacred scripture

Solution: It has a founder and sacred scripture

Q2: The twin concepts of jen and li are often said to constitute the basis of Confucianism
Select one:
True
False

Solution: True

Q3: Those are the basic doctrines of Buddha teachings EXCEPT
a. nothing is fixed or permanent
b. actions have consequences
c. emphasis on devotion rather than sacrifice
d. change is possible

Solution: emphasis on devotion rather than sacrifice

Q4: Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about Theravada, one of schools of Buddhism.
a. Theravada monks follow the practices that have been passed down by the senior monks from the Buddha's time, such as living in the forests and meditating.
b. Theravada is practiced mainly in southern Asian countries such as Sri Lanka, Thailand and Myanmar
c. Theravada means 'the teaching of the Elders'.
d. The goal in Theravada Buddhism is to become an 'Bodhisattva'

Solution: The goal in Theravada Buddhism is to become an 'Bodhisattva'

Q5: What is the purpose of most Shinto rituals?
a. to keep away evil spirit
b. to get blessing from God
c. to show the kami the outside world
d. to gain good life

Solution: to keep away evil spirit

Q6: Who is Buddha mother's name?
a. Śuddhodana
b. Māyādevī
c. Kapilavastu
d. Gautama

Solution: Māyādevī

Q7: The word Confucianism seems to be the creation of European Christians who entered Korea about 1860 CE and was originally used to label their notion of the non-Christian religions they came across in Korea.
Select one:
True
False

Solution: False

Q8: Which of the following is NOT the meaning of Jen (wren)?
Select one:
a. benefit
b. human heartedness
c. benevolence
d. goodness

Solution: benefit

Q9: One of the concept of Confucius is Hsiao. Which of the following is NOT TRUE on the meaning of reverence in Confucianism?
a. bring honor to the family since they have sacrificed much for you
b. Parents are revered because they are the source of your life
c. One should do well and make the family name known and respected
d. revered someone you love who you admire most among the outsiders

Solution: revered someone you love who you admire most among the outsiders

Q10: There are few instruments used in Buddhism ceremonies and meditation. Below are the list, EXCEPT
Select one:
a. bowls
b. Drums
c. Gongs
d. Wooden fish

Solution: bowls

Q11: During Meiji Period, Shinto is considered as state officials religion. Which of the following is NOT TRUE on this statement.
a. important shrines receive governmental funding
b. Shinto priests became state officials
c. The Shinto governor must be from man
d. Japan's creation myths were used to foster a national identity with the Emperor at its center

Solution: The governor must be from man

Q12: The Buddha explained that people live in a sea of suffering because of
Select one:
a. Perception and arrogant
b. Pleasures and happiness
c. Ignorance and greed
d. Desire and courage

Solution: Ignorance and greed

What effect does a binding minimum wage have on a monopsony labor market?

 Question: What effect does a binding minimum wage have on a monopsony labor market?

Solution: A monopsony labor market is a type of market structure where there is one employer and many laborers looking for work with that employer.

Minimum wage rate in a monopsony labor market will cause firms to still operate at the point marginal factor cost curve equals marginal revenue product curve.

When firms are forced to pay a set minimum wage, MRP increases because of increased output along with increase in costs. This will result in increased employment.

Unlike competitive firms, where employment falls due to minimum wage, in case of monopsony, it increases.

When is a firm’s shutdown point equal to the minimum point on its average cost curve?

 Question: When is a firm’s shutdown point equal to the minimum point on its average cost curve?

Solution: A firm’s shutdown point is equal to the minimum point on its average cost curve in the short run. This is because the average cost comprises of the sum of average fixed cost and the average variable cost. The average fixed cost has to be incurred by the firm even if the firm makes no business. Thus when a firm shuts down in the short run it will equal to the minimum point on its average cost curve.

Cybersecurity Awareness Training Quiz

Question 1: Cyber criminals only target big businesses.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 2: Cybersecurity awareness is only for IT and technical people.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 3: Technology alone can protect me from internet dangers.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 4: Backups are an important part of cybersecurity.
True
False

Solution: True

Question 5: Operating systems are the only updates I need to worry about.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 6: Microsoft recommends using Internet Explorer to browse the internet.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 7: Password managers can store difficult to remember passwords.
True
False

Solution: True

Question 8: I should use a separate password for every account I have.
True
False

Solution: True

 Question 9: The name of your pet or child makes a great password.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 10: I only need to worry about links sent through email.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 11: I can open attachments because my anti-virus will catch anything malicious.
True
False

Solution: False

 Question 12: Attackers will often use...
Select all answers that apply (more than one)
spoofed phone numbers
a sense of urgency
hacked accounts or devices of people you know
none of these

Solution: spoofed phone numbers
a sense of urgency
hacked accounts or devices of people you know

Question 13: I can safely plug in a USB drive I found in the parking lot.
True
False

Solution:  False

Question 14: Encryption can be used by both the good guys and the bad guys.
True
False

Solution: True

Question 15: A green padlock means a website is legitimate and safe to input your user credentials.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 16: Sharing photos while on vacation can tip off criminals that you are not home.
True
False

Solution: True

Question 17: Microsoft or Apple might call you in extreme circumstances when your computer is compromised.
True
False

Solution: False

Question 18: A caller's phone number (called ID) is a great way to verify who they are.
True
False

Solution: False

Network Security Quiz

 Question 1: The security protocol used in HTTPS is _____________.
A. IPSec
B. DNSSEC
C. TLS
D. SSH

Solution: TLS

 Question 2: The SSH protocol was initially developed for the purpose of:
Select one:
A. Remote login
B. File transfer
C. Remote program execution
D. Sending email

Solution: Remote login

Question 3: Given below are security services offered by the Authentication Header (AH) protocol in IPSec EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Integrity
B. Authentication
C. Confidentiality
D. Access control

Solution: Confidentiality

Question 4: Which of the following email security threats can be prevented using DNSSEC?
A. Email sent is sniffed during transmission
B. Email sent is transmitted to the attacker’s server
C. Email sending address is spoofed
D. Email cannot be sent due to DoS attack

Solution: Email sent is transmitted to the attacker’s server

Question 5: Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons why TLS has become the most popular network security protocol?
A. TLS is independent of operating system platform
B. TLS is used to secure the Web application, which is the most used network application
C. TLS only needs to be configured once, and all network applications running on the host would then be protected
D. From a user point of view, using TLS is as easy as downloading and using a client application that implements TLS

Solution: TLS only needs to be configured once, and all network applications running on the host would then be protected

Question 6: Given below are among the security concerns to an Internet user EXCEPT:
A. You may not be communicating with the person that you think you are communicating with
B. An attacker may sniff your packets
C. Your Internet connection may not be fast enough that an attacker may capture your slow moving packet
D. Malware may be secretly installed on your computer

Solution: Your Internet connection may not be fast enough that an attacker may capture your slow moving packet

Question 7: Which of the following email security mechanisms can be configured by an email user?
A. DKIM
B. SPF
C. DANE
D. PGP

Solution: PGP

Question 8: Which of the following is an advantage of using IPsec (which is network-layer security protocol) as compared to using TLS (which is a transport-layer security protocol)?
A. Configuration of IPsec is easier compared to TLS
B. IPsec uses more secure cryptographic protocols compared to TLS
C. Once IPsec is configured, communication will all Internet hosts will be protected
D. Once IPsec is configured, data transfer of all network applications with the specified receiving host will be protected

Solution: Once IPsec is configured, data transfer of all network applications with the specified receiving host will be protected

Question 9: DNSSEC ensures the following security objective(s):
A. Confidentiality, integrity and authenticity
B. Integrity and authenticity
C. Confidentiality and integrity
D. Authenticity and confidentiality

Solution: Integrity and authenticity

Question 10: Which of the following is NOT true about the use of explicit TLS in email application?
A. Before secure connection is achieved, port 25 is used by SMTP client to connect to SMTP server
B. When explicit TLS is used, email message sent between an email client and an email server is encrypted
C. It requires an insecure SMTP connection to be upgraded to a secure connection using the STARTTLS command
D. Explicit TLS can be used not only by SMTP, but also by IMAP and POP3

Solution: Before secure connection is achieved, port 25 is used by SMTP client to connect to SMTP server

Question 11: The use of https prevents the following attacks from being conducted EXCEPT:
A. Attacker replacing the Web server with a malicious server
B. Attacker sniffing the username and password transmitted by Web browser
C. Attacker stealing the HTTP cookie transmitted in an HTTP request message
D. Attacker spoofing the IP address of the host on which the Web browser is running

Solution: Attacker spoofing the IP address of the host on which the Web browser is running

Question 12: What is contained in an HTTP cookie?
A. A string that specifies the type of Web browser used by the user
B. The username and password of the Web user in cleartext
C. A string that identifies the Web user
D. The username and password of the Web user in encrypted form

Solution: A string that identifies the Web user

Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a TLS record protocol payload?
A. Hello protocol
B. Change cipher spec protocol
C. Alert protocol
D. Application data

Solution: Hello protocol

Question 14: Which of the following is one of the differences between S/MIME and OpenPGP?
A. S/MIME uses certificates issued by Certificate Authority while OpenPGP generates their own public and private keys
B. S/MIME provides authenticity and confidentiality, while OpenPGP only provides confidentiality
C. S/MIME does not include the sender’s public key with the message, while OpenPGP includes the sender’s public key with the message
D. OpenPGP provides authenticity and confidentiality, while S/MIME only provides authenticity

Solution: S/MIME uses certificates issued by Certificate Authority while OpenPGP generates their own public and private keys

Question 15:  The feature of SSH that enables any insecure TCP connection to be converted to a secure SSH connection is called ____________.
A. Remote login
B. Channel conversion
C. Securing channel
D. Port forwarding

Solution: Port forwarding

Question 16: Which of the following fields is not encrypted in Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) transport mode?
A. ESP trailer
B. IP header
C. TCP header
D. TCP data

Solution: IP header

Question 17: The following are true about private IP addresses EXCEPT:
A. A private IP address used in an organization may also be used in another organization
B. Accessing the Internet requires the use of Network Address Translation (NAT)
C. The address block 172.16.0.0/12 belongs to one of the private IP address blocks
D. They can be directly accessed from the Internet

Solution: They can be directly accessed from the Internet

Question 18:  Which of the following is NOT true about DNS-based Authentication of Named Entities (DANE)?
A. It solves security issues related to the use of STARTTLS
B. It encrypts the email data regardless of whether the email server supports TLS or not
C. It ensures the authenticity of an email server without verifying the server's digital certificate with a Certificate Authority (CA)
D. It makes use of a DNS record called TLSA

Solution: It encrypts the email data regardless of whether the email server supports TLS or not 

Question 19: In S/MIME, what is the use of the receiver's private key?
A. To encrypt the message digest
B. To decrypt the message content
C. To decrypt the message digest
D. To decrypt the secret key
E. To encrypt the message content
F. To encrypt the secret key

Solution: To decrypt the secret key

Question 20: In S/MIME, what is the use of the receiver's public key?
A. To decrypt the secret key
B. To decrypt the message content
C. To encrypt the message digest
D. To encrypt the message content
E. To decrypt the message digest
F. To encrypt the secret key

Solution: To encrypt the secret key

Question 21: Differentiate between active and passive security attacks.

Solution: Passive security attack: In this attack the intruder or attacker just sniffs the information, he does not modify or change it. He only listens to the traffic and compromises the confidentiality of the data

Active Security attack: In this the attacker first listens to the information and then changes it and then forwards it to the receiving party which means the confidentiality and integrity both compromises.

Question 22: Both Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and DomainKeys Identified Email (DKIM) are used to prevent the email sending address from being spoofed. However, the techniques used are different. Differentiate between the techniques used by these two mechanisms.

Solution: SPF makes use of a TXT DNS resource log in which the sending domain identifies all of the domain's senders. To authenticate the sender, the receiver will query a TXT DNS resource record about the sender's address domain and IP address. DKIM, on the other hand, uses a digital signature. The sender's private key will be used to sign the message. The receiver would then search the public key to see if the message is from the legitimate sender

Question 23:For each of the following situations, identify the most suitable IPSec protocol (AH or ESP) and mode (transport or tunneling) to be used.
(a) A staff working from home during COVID-19 pandemic, and would like to establish a Virtual Private Network (VPN) to his corporate network.
(b) A system administrator configuring two servers that always send data to each other. The system administrator needs to ensure that the data transmitted between the two servers cannot be read by an attacker.
(c) A network administrator configuring firewall between two office branches. The data transmitted are all TLS data. The main aim of using IPSec would be to ensure the authenticity of the two firewalls.

Solution: (a) Ipsec protocol (ESP) and tunneling mode
(b) Ipsec ESP transport modec)AH tunnel mode

Network Security Quiz

 Question 1: Which of the following statements about EAP authenticator is CORRECT?
Select one or more:
EAP authenticator may also play the role of an authentication server
EAP authenticator can communicate with supplicants using IEEE 802.1X
EAP authenticator is the device that grants access to the network
A WiFi access point is an example of an EAP authenticator

Solution: EAP authenticator may also play the role of an authentication server
EAP authenticator can communicate with supplicants using IEEE 802.1X
EAP authenticator is the device that grants access to the network
A WiFi access point is an example of an EAP authenticator

 Question 2: Identify the methods that are commonly used to control network access in a corporate network.
Select one or more:
Assign users to specific VLAN based on their access level
Allow access to devices based on their MAC address
Control access between network segments using firewall
Use 802.11X authentication

Solution: Assign users to specific VLAN based on their access level
Control access between network segments using firewall
Use 802.11X authentication

Question 3: Which of the following statements about EAP over LAN (EAPOL) is CORRECT?
Select one or more:
EAPOL support the transmission of EAP authentication packets over IEEE 802 LAN standards such Ethernet or WiFi
EAPOL is a protocol defined as part of IEEE 802.1X
EAPOL defines an authentication method to be used with IEEE 802.1X authentication
EAPOL is used to carry data packets sent after authentication has been approved

Solution: EAPOL support the transmission of EAP authentication packets over IEEE 802 LAN standards such Ethernet or WiFi
EAPOL is a protocol defined as part of IEEE 802.1X

Question 4:When a mobile phone is made into a WiFi hotspot, it would play the role of:
Select one or more:
Authenticator
Authentication server
Supplicant
Wireless medium

Solution: Authenticator
Authentication server

Question 5: Choose the essential features of cloud computing from the list below.
Select one or more:
Computing resources can be increased or decreased based on the specified service requirement
Cloud users are charged based on the amount of computing resources used
Computing resources are shared among the cloud users.
Cloud users can provision for computing resources themselves without the need to interact with any employee from the cloud service provider

Solution: Computing resources can be increased or decreased based on the specified service requirement
Cloud users are charged based on the amount of computing resources used
Cloud users can provision for computing resources themselves without the need to interact with any employee from the cloud service provider

Question 6:What are the security risks related to the use of cloud computing?
Select one or more:
Cloud computing account may be compromised by attackers
Cloud computing resources may be used for malicious purposes
Data may be leaked to other cloud computing users
Data may be read by the employees of the cloud service provider

Solution: Cloud computing account may be compromised by attackers
Cloud computing resources may be used for malicious purposes
Data may be leaked to other cloud computing users
Data may be read by the employees of the cloud service provider

Question 7: The IEEE 802.11i standard provides confidentiality through which of the following protocols?
Select one or more:
EAP
CCMP
TKIP
IEEE 802.11X

Solution: CCMP
TKIP

Question 8: The IEEE 802.11i standard provides access control through which of the following mechanisms?
Select one or more:
PSK
TKIP
CCMP
IEEE 802.11X

Solution: PSK
IEEE 802.11X

Question 9:  Among the reasons why mobile devices are more prone to security risks are:
Select one or more:
Mobile devices are equipped with Global Positioning System (GPS) receiver
Mobile devices run mobile operating systems where security features are not implemented
Mobile devices are easily lost or stolen
Mobile devices connect to various different networks

Solution: Mobile devices are equipped with Global Positioning System (GPS) receiver
Mobile devices are easily lost or stolen
Mobile devices connect to various different networks

Question 10: Which of the following should be done to secure a newly bought WiFi access point to be installed in your house?
Select one or more:
Change the default administration password
Change the default SSID name
Choose WPA3 for authentication even though it is not supported by the wireless devices that will use the access point
Use IEEE 802.1X instead of PSK as the authentication method

Solution: Change the default administration password
Change the default SSID name

Question 11: Choose the factors that contribute to the higher security risk of wireless networks as compared to wired networks.
Select one or more:
The fact that wireless devices are mobile and often connect to various different networks
Wireless network protocols have no security mechanisms implemented
Some mobile devices have limited capability to deal with security threats
The broadcast nature of wireless medium

Solution: The fact that wireless devices are mobile and often connect to various different networks
Some mobile devices have limited capability to deal with security threats
The broadcast nature of wireless medium

Question 12:  Among the common threat(s) faced by devices when communicating over a wireless network are:
Select one or more:
Attacker can break into any TCP or UDP port even though it is not opened
Its MAC address could be sniffed by attacker
The access point that it connects to could be a rogue access point
Its HTTP cookies can be easily sniffed even if HTTPS is used

Solution: Its MAC address could be sniffed by attacker
The access point that it connects to could be a rogue access point

Question 13: Choose the CORRECT statement(s) about WiFi association.
Select one or more:
It is not possible for association to be done without having to enter a password
It is possible to permit association based on device MAC address
Association refers to the process of transferring data from a wireless device to a WiFi access point
WPA3 is an authentication protocol used during WiFi association

Solution: It is possible to permit association based on device MAC address
WPA3 is an authentication protocol used during WiFi association

Question 14:Which of the following statements are TRUE about open WiFi network?
Select one or more:
When WPA3 is used, data transmitted in open WiFi network is encrypted
When open WiFi network is used, data is transmitted in clear text
Open WiFi network is only available in access points that support WEP
In open WiFi network, association can be done without requiring a password

Solution: When WPA3 is used, data transmitted in open WiFi network is encrypted
When open WiFi network is used, data is transmitted in clear text
In open WiFi network, association can be done without requiring a password

Question 15: Which of the following statements are TRUE about WPA2-Personal and WPA2-Enterprise?
Select one or more:
In WPA2-Personal, a single password is shared between multiple users
In WPA2-Personal, a radius server is used for authentication
In WPA2-Enterprise, each user has is own password
In WPA2-Enterprise, the access point can verify user credentials

Solution: In WPA2-Personal, a single password is shared between multiple users
In WPA2-Enterprise, each user has is own password