Saturday, 27 February 2021

Microeconomics Quiz

Question 1: Rare earth metals are used to manufacture some important electronic components in popular products like cell phones. These
metals are not really rare, but they are expensive to extract from the ground. What happens to the market for the rare earth metals if
these extraction costs increase?

A. Supply curve shifts rightward
B. Supply curve shifts leftward
C. Demand curve shifts rightward
D. Demand curve shifts leftward

Solution: Supply curve shifts leftward

Question 2: When the current price is above the market-clearing level we would expect:
A. greater production to occur during the next period.
B. a shortage.
C. quantity supplied to exceed quantity demanded.
D. quantity demanded to exceed quantity supplied.

Solution:
quantity supplied to exceed quantity demanded.

Question 3:Microeconomics is the branch of economics that deals with which of the following topics?

A. The behavior of individual consumers
B. Unemployment and interest rates
C. The behavior of individual firms and investors
D. A and C

Solution:
A and C

Question 4: he price elasticity of gasoline supply in the U.S. is 0.4. If the price of gasoline rises by 8%, what is the expected change in the quantity of gasoline supplied in the U.S.?

A. +0.32%
B. +3.2%
C. +32.0%
D. -3.2%

Solution:
+3.2%

Question 5:In a perfectly competitive market:

A. there is a cartel
B. there is a single seller
C. no single buyer or seller can significantly affect the market price
D. there are a few buyers

Solution:
no single buyer or seller can significantly affect the market price

Question 6: The income elasticity of demand refers to:

A. the percentage change in quantity demanded resulting from a 1-percent increase in income.
B. a change in income following a change in quantity demanded.
C. the change in income required for quantity demanded to change by 1%.
D. the substitution of one good for another as income changes

Solution:
the percentage change in quantity demanded resulting from a 1-percent increase in income.


Question 7: Arbitraging price differences between two markets is generally not possible if:

A. there are positive costs of transporting the products from one market to the other.
B. the transportation costs are larger than the difference in prices.
C. the government has prohibited exchange between the two markets.
D. B and C above

Solution:
B and C above

Question 8: Which of the following is a normative statement?

A. The taxes paid by the poor should be reduced in order to improve the income distribution in the U.S.
B. State governments should not subsidize corporations by training welfare recipients.
C. Presidential candidates should not be given funds from the federal government to run campaigns.
D. all of the above

Solution:
all of the above 

Question 9: When 1983 is the CPI base year, the CPI value is 82.4 for 1980 and 172.2 for 2017. Suppose we want to convert this CPI series to have a base year of 2017 (that is, CPI2017 = 100). What is the value of the revised CPI for 1980?

A. 100
B. 47.9
C. 172.2
D. 209.0

Solution:
47.9


Question 10: The problem of scarcity means that people face trade-offs. Which of the following trade-offs are the concern of microeconomics?

A. Trade-offs faced by consumers in the purchase of goods
B. Trade-offs faced by workers between work and leisure
C. Trade-offs faced by firms in what goods to produce
D. all of the above

Solution:
all of the above


Question 11: The "constant dollar" price is:

A. the real price of a good.
B. the nominal price of a good adjusted for inflation.
C. the "current dollar" price adjusted for inflation.
D. all of the above

Solution:
all of the above

Question 12: Suppose the nominal price of gasoline was $0.90 per gallon in 1987. To convert this value to the real price of 1987 gasoline in 2017 dollars, we should:

A. multiply by the 1987 CPI and divide by the 2017 CPI.
B. multiply by the 2017 CPI and divide by the 1987 CPI.
C. not do anything because this is the real price in 2017 dollars.
D. none of the above

Solution:
multiply by the 2017 CPI and divide by the 1987 CPI.


Question 13: The battery packs used in electric and hybrid automobiles are one of the largest cost components for manufacturing these cars. As the price of these batteries decline, we expect that the:

A. demand curve for electric and hybrid autos will shift rightward.
B. supply curve for electric and hybrid autos will shift leftward. .
C. supply curve for electric and hybrid autos will shift rightward.
D. demand curve for electric and hybrid autos will shift leftward.

Solution:
supply curve for electric and hybrid autos will shift rightward.


Question 14: The demand for books is: Qd = 120 - P
The supply of books is: Qs = 5P
What is the equilibrium quantity of books sold?

A. 75
B. 50
C. 25
D. 100

Solution:
100

Question 15: The demand for books is: Qd = 120 - P
The supply of books is: Qs = 5P
What is the equilibrium price of books?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Solution:
20

Question 16:  Assume that the current market price is below the market clearing level. We would expect:

A. a surplus to accumulate.
B. upward pressure on the current market price.
C. downward pressure on the current market price.
D. lower production during the next time period.

Solution:
upward pressure on the current market price.

Question 17: As long as the actual market price exceeds the equilibrium market price, there will be:

A. downward pressure on the market price.
B. upward pressure on the market price.
C. no purchases made.
D. Both A and C are correct.

Solution:
downward pressure on the market price.

Question 18: A supply curve reveals:

A. the quantity of output that producers are willing to produce and sell at each possible market price.
B. the maximum level of output an industry can produce, regardless of price.
C. the difference between quantity demanded and quantity supplied at each price.
D. the quantity of output consumers are willing to purchase at each possible market price.

Solution:
the quantity of output that producers are willing to produce and sell at each possible market price.

Question 19: The price of good A goes up. As a result, the demand for good B shifts to the left. From this we can infer that:

A. good B is used to produce good A.
B. good A is used to produce good B.
C. goods A and B are substitutes.
D. goods A and B are complements.

Solution:  goods A and B are complements.


Question 20: Elasticity measures:

A. sensitivity of price to a change in quantity.
B. the percentage change in one variable in response to a one percent increase in another variable.
C. the inverse of the slope of a demand curve.
D. the slope of a demand curve.

Solution:
the percentage change in one variable in response to a one percent increase in another variable.

Question 21: Which of the following is a positive statement?

A. When the price of a good goes up, consumers buy less of it.
B. When the price of a good goes up, firms produce more of it.
C. When the Federal government sells bonds, interest rates rise and private business investment is reduced
D. all of the above

Solution:
all of the above

Question 22: Firms face trade-offs in production, including decisions related to:

A. which products to produce.
B. how much of a particular product to produce.
C. the best way to produce a given amount of output.
D. all of the above

Solution:
all of the above


Question 23: Along any downward-sloping straight-line demand curve:

A. both the price elasticity and slope vary.
B. the slope varies, but the price elasticity is constant.
C. the price elasticity varies, but the slope is constant.
D. both the price elasticity and slope are constant.

Solution:
the price elasticity varies, but the slope is constant.

Question 24: What does it mean when the CPI is higher this year than last?

A. Real prices have increased.
B. Real prices have decreased.
C. The rate of inflation has increased.
D. There has been inflation since last year.

Solution:
There has been inflation since last year. 

Question 25: You are analyzing the demand for good X. Which of the following will result in a shift to the right of the demand curve for X?

A. A decrease in the price of X
B. An increase in the price of a good that is a complement to good X
C. An increase in the price of a good that is a substitute for X
D. all of the above

Solution:
An increase in the price of a good that is a substitute for X

Question 26: Assume that steak and potatoes are complements. When the price of steak goes up, the demand curve for potatoes:

A. shifts to the right initially and then returns to its original position.
B. shifts to the right.
C. shifts to the left.
D. remains constant.

Solution:
shifts to the left.

Question 27: For automobile demand in the U.S., the income response tends to be larger in the:

A. long run.
B. short run.
C. The income response is the same in the long run and the short run.
D. We do not have enough information to answer this question.

Solution:
short run.

Question 28:  When an industry's raw material costs increase, other things remaining the same,

A. output decreases and the market price also decreases.
B. the supply curve shifts to the left.
C. the supply curve shifts to the right.
D. output increases regardless of the market price and the supply curve shifts upward.

Solution:
the supply curve shifts to the left.

Question 29: If two goods are substitutes, the cross-price elasticity of demand must be:

A. zero
B. infinite
C. negative.
D. positive.

Solution:
positive.

Question 30:  Due to the recent increase in the price of natural gas, the quantity of coal demanded by electric power generation plants has increased. Based on this information, coal and natural gas are:

A. complements.
B. substitutes.
C. independent goods.
D. none of the above

Solution:
substitutes

Saturday, 20 February 2021

Network Security Quiz

 Q1: In order to allow for secure remote login using SSH, which of the following port number needs to be allowed by the firewall?
Select one:
A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 22

Solution: 22

Q2: The following statements are true about port numbers EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Port numbers can provide an indication on the network services running on a host
B. Scanning for open port numbers on a host is considered an active attack
C. Both client and server port numbers need to be set to a fixed number based on the specification in the RFC document
D. Port numbers are among the attack surfaces of a host

Solution: Both client and server port numbers need to be set to a fixed number based on the specification in the RFC document

Q3: Which of the following is the use of the Change Cipher Spec Protocol in TLS?
Select one:
A. To tell the receiver that subsequent data transfer will be protected using the negotiated cipher spec
B. To tell the receiver that the cipher spec need to be changed and re-negotiated
C. To tell the receiver that a new TLS session need to be established
D. To tell the receiver that a new encryption key need to be generated

Solution: To tell the receiver that subsequent data transfer will be protected using the negotiated cipher spec

Q4: Which of the following security objectives are NOT addressed by the SSH protocol?
Select one:
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Authentication

Solution: Availability

Q5: As of the year 2020, which of the following TLS versions are still considered secure? Check all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. TLSv1.2
B. TLSv1.1
C. TLSv1.0
D. TLSv1.3

Solution: TLSv1.2
TLSv1.3

Q6: Assume that you have developed a new network application that uses its own application-layer protocol. As it is, the application-layer protocol sends data in clear text. Which of the following protocols can be used to ensure secure data transmission? Check all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. TLS
B. TCP
C. SSH
D. UDP

Solution: TLS
SSH

Object-oriented Programming Quiz

Question 1: What will be the value of text3 when the following code is executed?

String text1 = "a" + "b";
String text2 = "c";
String text3 = text1 + text2 + text1;
Select one:
a. abca
b. abc
c. ababc
d. abcab

Solution: abcab


Question 2: An Object can be defined as an instance of a ___________.
Select one:
a. state
b. class
c. attribute
d. group

Solution: class 

Question 3: Which of the following class's object do you need in order to perform input operation in Java?
Select one:
a. Scanner
b. Date
c. JFrame
d. String

Solution:
Scanner

Question 4: Which of the following is a valid declaration and creation of an object of class Box?
Select one:
a. Box obj = new Box;
b. new Box obj;
c. Box obj = new Box();
d. obj = new Box();

Solution: Box obj = new Box();

Question 5: Identify from the below the states and the behaviours of a dog:

barking
breed
eating
color
name
wagging the tail
 

Solution:  Barking = behavior

Breed= state

Eating = behaviour

Color = state

Name = state

Wagging the tail = behavior

Question 6: Which of these operators is used to allocate memory for an object in Java?
Select one:
a. alloc
b. malloc
c. give
d. new

Solution: new 

Question 7: This code will compile and when run will print out "Hello world"

public class Main{
   public static void main(String args){
      System.out.println("Hello world");
   }
}
 

Select one:
a. True
b. False 

Solution: True

Question 8: What will be the output of the following Java program?


 

Select one:
a. I have a quiz today. I hope I can score good grade.
b. I have a quiz today.
c. I hope I can score good grade.
d. I have a quiz today.
e. I have a quiz today.I hope I can score good grade.

Solution: I have a quiz today. I hope I can score good grade.

Question 9: Study the following codes:


 In which line of the codes, the object is created? (Give the line number)
What is the type/class name of the object used in the program?

setModel is an example of _____________.

What is the name of the class?

What will be displayed by the statement in line 18?

What will be displayed by the statement in line 17?

What is the name of the object used in the program?

Solution:   In which line of the codes, the object is created? (Give the line number) = 10 

What is the type/class name of the object used in the program? = Car

setModel is an example of _____________. = method

What will be displayed by the statement in line 18? = 2017

What will be displayed by the statement in line 17? = Jazz

What is the name of the object used in the program? = car1

Question 10: Any entity that has _________ and _________ is known as an object. For example, a chair, pen, table, keyboard, bike, etc. and it can be physical or logical.

Select one:
a. method        behaviour
b. state        behaviour
c. name        age
d. state        property

Solution: state        behaviour

Question 11: Which of the following is/are incorrectly import the Scanner class into your program:
Select one or more:
a. import java.util;
b. import java.util.Scanner;
c. import java.util.*;
d. import javax.swing.Scanner;

Solution: import java.util;
import javax.swing.Scanner;

Question 12: What will be the displayed when the following code is executed?

System.out.println("Venue is  " + 18 / 2);
Select one:
Venue is 18/2
Venue is 9.0
Venue is 182
Venue is 9

Solution: Venue is 9

Question 13: Which of these keywords is used to make a class?

Select one:
a. class
b. struct
c. static
d. public

Solution: class



 

Network Security Quiz

Question 1: The TLS record protocol performs the following operations EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Establishing TLS session
B. Appending a TLS header to the data
C. Fragmenting application data
D. Encrypting application data

Solution: Establishing TLS session

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of network application?
Select one:
A. The application must be assigned a port number
B. The application needs to implement a communication protocol
C. The application must be assigned an IP address
D. The application needs to communicate with another application over the network

Solution: The application must be assigned an IP address

Question 3: HTTP cookies allows a website to do the following EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Keep track of user's activities on the website
B. Provide content based on user's identify
C. Identify the IP address of the user's machine
D. Maintain user login session

Solution: Identify the IP address of the user's machine

Question 4: What is the use of the Message Authentication Code (MAC) in TLS?
Select one:
A. To ensure the data is not modified during transit
B. To ensure the data is compressed to a smaller size
C. To ensure the data cannot be read during transit
D. To ensure an attacker cannot spoof the IP address of the sender

Solution: To ensure the data is not modified during transit

Question 5: Which of the following application protocols send its data in clear text?
Select one:
A. HTTPS
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. FTP

Solution: FTP

Question 6: Which of the following statements best describe the port forwarding feature of SSH?
Select one:
A. It enables secure data transmission of any network application
B. It enables a port number of an application to be transferred to another application
C. It enables the port number on a host to be transferred to another host
D. It enables the forwarding of data from one host to another

Solution: It enables secure data transmission of any network application

Question 7: Which of the following is NOT true when HTTPS is used?
Select one:
A. HTTP cookies can no longer be sniffed
B. An HTTP header line indicating the use of HTTPS will be added to the header HTTP header
C. Password transmitted using form-based authentication can no longer be sniffed
D. HTTP header is encrypted

Solution: An HTTP header line indicating the use of HTTPS will be added to the header HTTP header 

Question 8: HTTPS is the combination of which protocols?
Select one:
A. HTTP + TLS
B. HTTP + SSH
C. TLS + SSL
D. HTTP + TLS + SSH

Solution: HTTP + TLS

Question 9: Which of the following is NOT the function of a Web proxy?
Select one:
A. To enable faster Web browsing
B. To block illegal websites
C. To log browsing activities of users in an organization
D. To prevent malware from being downloaded during Web browsing 

Solution: To prevent malware from being downloaded during Web browsing

Question 10: The use of digital certificate in HTTPS ensures which of the following security properties?
Select one:
A. Authenticity of the server
B. Confidentiality of the HTTP messages
C. Integrity of the HTTP messages
D. Availability of the server

Solution: Authenticity of the server

Question 11: Which of the following command line tools can be used to invoke DNS service to convert Internet hostname to IP address? Check all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. nslookup
B. netstat
C. dig
D. ifconfig

Solution: nslookup
dig

Question 12: What are the security services provided by HTTPS? Check all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Authenticity

Solution: Confidentiality
Integrity
Authenticity

Question 13: Which of the following services cause data transmission in TCP to be slightly slower than in UDP? Check all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. Process-to-process delivery
B. Error detection
C. Reliable data transfer
D. Congestion control 

Solution: Reliable data transfer
Congestion control

Question 14: In order to allow browsing of both HTTP and HTTPS websites, which of the following port number(s) need to be allowed by the firewall? Choose all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. 22
B. 21
C. 80
D. 443

Solution: 80
443

Question 15: Which of the following application-layer protocols utilize the SSH protocol? Check all that apply.
Select one or more:
A. SFTP
B. SHTTP
C. SMTP
D. SCP

Solution: SFTP
SCP


 

Human Computer Interactions Quiz

Q1: ____________ is a term used to refer to an attribute of an object that allows people to know how to use it.

a. Constraint
b. Visibility
c. Control
d. Affordance

Solution: Affordance

Q2: Which of the following is true about Short-Term memory?
a. Short-term memory has an unlimited capacity.
b. Short-term memory has large but limited capacity.
c. Short-term memory has no capacity.
d. Short-term memory has a limited capacity.


Solution:
Short-term memory has a limited capacity

Q3: Menus

a. Offer access to all the system's functionality
b. Offer a choice of operations that can be performed at a given time
c. Are hard to learn how to use
d. Offer an easy way to learn an application

 Solution:  Offer a choice of operations that can be performed at a given time

Q4: The stages of the Norman model of interaction are

a. Establish goal, form intention, specify actions, execute actions, perceive system state, interpret state, evaluate state in terms of goals and intentions
b. Move towards goal, check, score goal, add one to total, repeat
c. Establish goal, perceive state, form intention, specify and execute action, interpret state
d. Think about what you want to do, do it, check you've done it

Solution: Establish goal, form intention, specify actions, execute actions, perceive system state, interpret state, evaluate state in terms of goals and intentions

Q5: To help users remember your design:
a. Provide them with easy to read manuals.
b. Provide them with handy shortcuts for important tasks.
c. None of the above.
d. Design for recognition.

Solution: Design for recognition.

Q6: Expert "slips" occur when

a. A person is skilled at a task and an element of the task changes
b. A person does not understand how the system works
c. A person misreads the display and issues the wrong command
d. A person is clumsy

Solution: A person is skilled at a task and an element of the task changes

Q7: Interaction design can only be carried out by people with expertise in Information Technology (IT). Only IT people can belong in a design team.
True
False

Solution: False

Q8: Cultural probes are small packs of items designed to provoke and record comments in various ways. which are given to people to take away and use it in their environment.

True
False

Solution:  True

Q9: Visible menus are preferable to typed in commands because it is easier to recall information than to recognize it

True
False

Solution: False

Q10: Icons are designed to represent objects and operations at the interface using symbols only.

True

False

Solution: False

Q11: Which of the following disciplines may contribute to the design process?

a. Ergonomics
b. Anthropology
c. Cognitive Science
d. All the above answers are correct

Solution: All the above answers are correct

Q12: The most common interface style nowadays is the

a. X system
b. WIMP System
c. Keyboard and mouse system
d. Command line system

Solution: WIMP System

Q13: The three types of human memory are sensory memory, short-term memory and working memory

True
False

Solution: False

Q14: Virtual reality refers to the experience of interacting with an artificial environment, which makes it feel virtually real.

True
False

Solution: True

Q15: Example of form fill interface is________.

a. Data entry form on some university web
b. All of the given answers
c. A dialog box
d. Pop up menu

Solution: Data entry form on some university web

Q16: Interaction design process includes four main phases plus an iteration loop. Which of the following is being executed
in the Analysis stage?

a. Task analysis
b. Help
c. Dialog notations
d. Interviews

Solution: Task analysis

Q17: Golden rule of design helps the designer to understand the computers and people. Which of the following may be used in understanding people?

a. Platforms
b. Computer capacities
c. Social aspects
d. Tools

Solution: Social aspects

Q18: System will fail if it is inappropriate to the user and do not fulfill the user needs.

True
False

Solution: True

Q19: Designers need to know many different things about users, technologies and interactions between them in order to create effective user experiences.

True
False

Solution: True

 Q20: Disadvantages of multidisciplinary teams are:
Select one:
a. Different perspectives and ways of seeing and talking about things.
b. Many ideas are generated.
c. None of the given answers.
d. Communication is not easy.

Solution: Communication is not easy.